I don't hear a difference. The word breaks down into three syllables, not two parts. Are you asking where the stress goes?
It doesn't matter anyway. "Correct" pronunciation is an illusion, says the air force brat with the Iowa/West Texas/South Texas accent who was once asked if she was from England because she pronounces the "g" at the ends of her gerunds.
Yeah, basically, although that sort of ends up with the letter 'e' part of the word being either IPA (limited notation, unicode adapted ) /i/ (like 'i' as in sit)or /i:/ (like the 'ee' in 'see)- I hoped my two supposedly humourous pseudo-phonetic-type name spellings made it as clear as I could without getting too technical or patronising anyone, but it is well tricky to talk about pronunciation, which is what the IPA is for, of course, but I can't remember it properly so I don't really know what I'm talking about and don't expect anyone else would either!
/edit for about the tenth time, heh/ How about a)"I'm forty 'n' I wish I was twelve again" vs "For tea 'n' toast you'll be wanting a nice café"?
I make no statements and have no opinion about how many British people drop their terminal gs; but in West Texas in the 70s, this was seriously given to me, more than once, as the reason why people thought I might be from England. It didn't make any sense to me then, either.
I've tried it out loud several times, and it seems I alternate between putting the primary stress on the first syllable and the secondary stress on the second syllable, and vice versa. The third syllable is consistently unstressed. Inconsistency in the stress placement is probably a result of my aforementioned hybrid accent. The chief hallmark of the West Texas accent is to place the primary emphasis squarely on the first syllable of most multisyllabic words regardless; the result, for me, is that I tend to distrust this emphasis and stress the second syllable. But in this word, the primary meaning is in the first syllable, and stressing the meaningful syllable makes the most sense.
If people understand you when you say it, that's the main thing. It's not a word I say aloud often, anyway.
I was born and raised in Tulsa, Oklahoma, but people here in Tulsa ask me all the time where I'm "from" and get mad when I won't "tell them." I've heard guesses ranging from New Jersey and New York to England and Germany.
Anyway, the word should be pronounced "FORTRAN" just like in Comp. Sci. (That joke is fading into history just like the computer language.) Actually, I have glimpsed books with FORTRAN or FOURTEEN in the title and thought, "At last! A copy of Fortean Studies!"
Anyway, I always pronounced the word FOR--tee'--uhn, with descending emphasis. But the important question is, "Is the 'F' capitalized?"
Yes, on the same principle by which which Elizabethan or Dickensian would be capitalised. It doesn't necessarily mean the subject in question is actually the direct product of the person named, but conforms to the spirit of their subject matter.
The FT writer's guide, at the back of every Fortean Times, asks you to use a lower-case "f". The idea, I suppose, comes from a proper or trademarked name eventually norming into the language, like "macintosh". Words like "Kleenex" and "Xerox" are well on their way to lower-case words -- nobody I know says "Xerographically reproduce fifty copies of this letter!"