I never studied that other popular ancient language, so it is all very much Greek to me. I was aware of the controversy over cephalopodic spellings, but this is the first time I learn of the pronunciation, thank you. But I haz a question: does that mean that a singular antipode is in fact an antipus?
I'm a bit of a faker in as much as the only Greek I had to learn was for my ancient philosophy, which required almost no grammar, but as far as I can see...
An antipode is already a singular.
However, a quick search suggests that the word 'antipode' didn't exist as a Latin or a Greek word; it is an English back-formation from 'antipodes'.
Antipodes (
ἀντίποδες) was the Greek plural noun:
Anti (
ἀντί) = opposite + podes (
πόδες) = feet. So idiomatically that which stands opposite.
The singular of 'podes' (
πόδες) was 'pous' (
πούς), which gives a singular for antipodes as antipous, I think, but that might be notional and never have actually existed for all I know.
And, yes, that's the same 'pous' that is 'Englished' as 'pus' as in octopus (
ὀκτώπούς), which is what probably sparked your question.
If, like me, you're wondering why it isn't 'octopodes' for the singular, one creature having eight legs (not 'eight foot'), it's because octopus in Greek means 'eight-legged' not 'eight legs' (it's identical as both adjective and noun, the noun implied it being a thing: 'eight-legged one').
As to the correct pronunciation, I just looked it up. I know that the stress in Greek can only fall on the last, the second from last, and the third from last syllables (the ultima / the penult / the antepenult), and that which it is frequently depends on the vowel length of the ultima, but the niceities are beyond me.
Should you be masochistic in this area, see here:
http://www.chioulaoshi.org/BG/Paradigms/accents.html