Spookdaddy
Cuckoo
- Joined
- May 24, 2006
- Messages
- 7,993
- Location
- Midwich
There is , at least in the UK, a semi serious point behind this. I was taught British Constitution at school. A subject which AFAIK is no longer taught. And part of that was that the law of the UK was made up of edicts going back as far as the Magna Carta, if not further. Recent governments going back nearly 50 years now have ignored those ancient rights and precedents.
But do those rights still exist? I doubt you'd find any modern judge or solicitor who would give them countenance, but have those precedents actually been abolished? And without them, are the current actions of Government even legal?
Genuine question; What ancient rights and precedents which one might consider reasonable and/or relevant in the modern age have been superseded to the general detriment?
If I recall correctly, the great majority of clauses in the Magna Carta were concerned with the regulation of the feudal system, and as such, thank god, have little relevance today. There are a few key and extremely important exceptions - notably the requirement that all men have the right to the same forms of justice, via due process and the judgement of their peers. Also, there was considerable effort made to define under what circumstances property could - or could not - be seized. (See here: Clauses 39 and 40 are those generally considered to be universal and timeless and cornerstones of the law to this day. I'm not sure anyone's much vexed these days about fish weirs or the returning of the King of Scotland's daughters.)
All that aside, the almost universal application of the Freeman argument appears to be in relation to avoiding paying tax, or paying fines (especially for traffic violations), or paying child support. I'm not sure that enforcing the law in any of those areas is a contradiction of any lost and ancient rights. And if it turns out it is...well...that's good, surely?
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