Ermintruder
The greatest risk is to risk nothing at all...
- Joined
- Jul 13, 2013
- Messages
- 6,208
This is by way of an extended thought experiment rather than any practical lifestyle recommendation (please read on, you are intrigued, or you wouldn't have reached the end of this sentence).
Humanity, like all animals, procreates via sex, in all it's various versions. People, for most of our collective existence on earth, simply eat/drink/sleep and copulate. Abstract thought or creative representationing are all late behavioural arrivals.
So lots and lots of unbridled, unprotected (and unwanted) sex went on in the primal pre-civilised world that mankind eventually wrought.
Back in the earliest almost pre-human days, humanity itself became if not the most-successful, then certainly the most self-aware sexually-transmitted disease.
But surely there always were (and still are) unsought added extras, in terms of biological disease and infection conveyed via sex, as an adjunct to reproduction.
This is the nub of my point: at one point in history, by definition, people must, universally, have been absolutely-riddled with STDs/STIs. But what did that mean in that timeframe? Were people healthier? Were they invigorated somehow by 'disease'? Are humans 'meant' to have STIs? Because, our earliest forefathers must, beyond the shadow of a doubt, have been infected from puberty until death. And that's almost my thesis here: STIs/STDs must have not killed-off humanity, or we wouldn't be here.
Did infection at an intrinsic level with STDs/STIs perhaps confer some level of cross-protection against modern-day ailments, such as (say) MS, asthma or worse? This is just sheer conjecture on my part, a postulation of improbable unproveable correlation.
But regardless of the unlikeliness of this vivo-vaccinating effect, the shared biological STD baseline of the human herd must, over time, have gone from being a pool, to puddles, then patches, and finally to part-pairings (I mean here the graph-trend, not any absolute isolations).
Does anyone have any informed biochemical insights on this? Surely the absence of what would've been some form of innoculative transmission would've had some resultant impact. Or is this an entirely mistaken concept to even consider?
Humanity, like all animals, procreates via sex, in all it's various versions. People, for most of our collective existence on earth, simply eat/drink/sleep and copulate. Abstract thought or creative representationing are all late behavioural arrivals.
So lots and lots of unbridled, unprotected (and unwanted) sex went on in the primal pre-civilised world that mankind eventually wrought.
Back in the earliest almost pre-human days, humanity itself became if not the most-successful, then certainly the most self-aware sexually-transmitted disease.
But surely there always were (and still are) unsought added extras, in terms of biological disease and infection conveyed via sex, as an adjunct to reproduction.
This is the nub of my point: at one point in history, by definition, people must, universally, have been absolutely-riddled with STDs/STIs. But what did that mean in that timeframe? Were people healthier? Were they invigorated somehow by 'disease'? Are humans 'meant' to have STIs? Because, our earliest forefathers must, beyond the shadow of a doubt, have been infected from puberty until death. And that's almost my thesis here: STIs/STDs must have not killed-off humanity, or we wouldn't be here.
Did infection at an intrinsic level with STDs/STIs perhaps confer some level of cross-protection against modern-day ailments, such as (say) MS, asthma or worse? This is just sheer conjecture on my part, a postulation of improbable unproveable correlation.
But regardless of the unlikeliness of this vivo-vaccinating effect, the shared biological STD baseline of the human herd must, over time, have gone from being a pool, to puddles, then patches, and finally to part-pairings (I mean here the graph-trend, not any absolute isolations).
Does anyone have any informed biochemical insights on this? Surely the absence of what would've been some form of innoculative transmission would've had some resultant impact. Or is this an entirely mistaken concept to even consider?